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Originally posted by Sugarpie
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Correct me if I'm mistake, but I believe that is because its written into the constitution.
Partially. Substantially even. Part of it is a holdover from British Common Law as well.
That said, it's there nonetheless, and none of us want to live in a society of "prior restraint" where things are illegal by default until a law is passed that makes them legal.
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Marriage itself is not a constitutional right
Pretty much everyone who understands the basics of law would disagree with you. It's an individual liberty covered by several portions of the Constitution, actually, among other founding documents.
The pursuit of happiness, individual liberty, the right to enter contracts (marriage is a contract after all), the First Amendment certainly covers it in part (the right to self-expression - Free exercise), the part about "All rights not reserved for the nation are reserved for the states, and all rights not reserved for the states belong to the people" is pretty compelling as well. We also had it pretty firmly established from our imported Common Law when we started this shin-dig.
Marriage most certainly is covered by several portions of the Constitution.
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but the 14th amendment is used to defend the right to marry
Um... What?
The 14th Amendment is the Due Process Clause. I'm sure that at some point in our nation's history someone has challenged something about a marriage under pretty much every Amendment out there, but primarily marriage is established much more strongly in other portions of the Constitution.
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and in 1967 it was used to over turn a ban on interracial marriage.
Okay, that makes more sense. I could (and I'm guessing here because I don't know which case you're talking about) imagine that a court heard a challenge on gay marriage and the court found that the couple was being prohibited from exercising their legal right to marry without the couple having been found guilty of some crime that necessitated such restrictions, and thus the law violated their due process rights (suspension of personal liberty without having done anything to merit it - such as committing a crime and having been convicted in a court of law).
But it's hard to say without seeing the specific case and knowing more about it.
It wouldn't surprise me at all however, if at some point a judge said "Marriage is a right. This couple's right to marry is being infringed on by the state, but they didn't commit a crime and they didn't get a trial, so there's no justification for restricting their rights. This violates the 14th Amendment which guarantees that a person's rights, property and freedom will not be restricted without due process (a court system)."
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Yet, even with this amendment, gays could not marry until recently, and until the state they lived in passed a law allowing it. So the "default" you talk about did not give gays the right to marry.
Actually, you're mistaken. Most laws on the books of most states did define a marriage as being between a man and a woman, or the actual verbiage was ambiguous and had been interpreted to mean "between a man and a woman." So yes, there was a law on the books in most states.
Many states recently tried to pass gay marriage laws barring gays from being wed, as soon as that question started to become challenged. Proposition 8 is one such law. Colorado also had a law they passed. So did dozens of other states. In many states, it
still says that marriage is between a man and a woman because it hasn't been corrected yet.
At the time most state laws were written - most people pretty universally agreed that marriage was solely the dominion of a man and a woman (and only of the same race I might add). But bear in mind those laws were put in place at a time when discussing such things (much less acting on them) would get you tossed into an iron maiden.
Over time the question of what defines marriage began to be discussed and debated more openly - but it's clear that at the time most marriage laws were written they almost accidentally wrote in (either explicitly or implicitly) that marriage was to be between a man and a woman.
In states where it truly was ambiguous, within the last 20 years there has been a rash of laws passed that outlawed gay marriage.
Sugarpie, if no law existed barring the marriage of two men or of two women, the Supreme Court wouldn't have anything to strike down (or a ruling to uphold after the Circuit Courts struck them down).
The laws are there. They've been there. For a long time.
You're mistaken. The law did prevent two same-gendered people from being married.
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The 14th amendment is law, and hasn't protected gay couples in the past, so how is it different today?
You have a misunderstanding of the 14th Amendment. It's the Due Process Amendment. It doesn't protect marriage and it doesn't protect gays. It protects your right to a trail, a fair trial, to have evidence presented, to be able to refute that evidence, to have an attorney, and prevents unlawful search and seizure of personal property and liberty.
I think you have a misunderstanding of the Amendments, Sugarpie.
You should be focusing on the First Amendment. That's where most folks would say the strongest support for a right to marry is at.